CHAPTER 3
LIQUIDS AND SOLIDS
Q.1. I
heard Islamian genius saying that glass must be a super cooled liquid. The
reason that he might have in his mind is that glass has
a.
definite
volume
b.
definite
shape
c.
crystalline
structure
d.
no
crystalline structure
(d)
Q. 2. Some
substances are good conductor of electricity in both the solid and liquid
states. These substances are generally
a.
ionic
substances
b.
metallic
substances
c.
molecular
solids
d.
covalent
network solids
(b)
Q.
3. Air can be distilled fractionally
because the constituents of the air
a.
can
be liquefied
b.
have
different boiling points
c.
are
gases at room temperature
d.
have
different densities
(b)
Q. 4. There
are three different substances, Argon, Hydrochloric acid and Hydroiodic acid.
The correct sequence in which the boiling point increases is
a.
Ar
< HCI < HI
b.
HI
> HCI > Ar
c.
HCI
< HI < Ar
d.
HI
> Ar > HCI
(a)
Q. 5. A
student put two eggs A and B in HCI solution. After 5 minutes he took them out
for weighing but egg dropped in water accidentally. The student was able to
take it out after 30 minutes. He weighed it. Its weight was 40.33 grams. Weight
of egg “B” was also 40.33 grams. Islamian genius told him that if both eggs
have been dropped in water, the weight of egg “B” would have been
a.
greater
than that of egg “A”
b.
less
than that of egg “A”
c.
equal
to that of egg “A”
d.
unaffected
instead
(a)
Q. 6. Keeping
in mind different factors which affect the melting point of a substance, the
compound having highest melting point among the following is
a.
NaCI
b.
RbCI
c.
LiCI
d.
CsCI
(a)
Q. 7. Islamian
genius told his follows that in a crystal the atoms are located at the position
of
a.
zero
potential energy
b.
infinite
potential energy
c.
maximum
potential energy
d.
minimum
potential energy
(A)
Q. 8. Keeping
in mind the concept of charge density, compound having highest lattice energy
is
a.
KCI
b.
MgO
c.
LiBr
d.
NaF
(b)
Q. 9. Meniscus
is the shape of the surface of a liquid in a cylindrical container. It may be
concave, convex or plane. For molten metals
a.
meniscus
is concave
b.
meniscus
is convex
c.
meniscus
is plane
d.
meniscus
may be concave or convex depending on the nature of the metal
(b)
Q.
10. All of the following substances are
crystalline except
a.
Ice
b.
Carbon
(diamond)
c.
Sucrose
d.
Plastic
(d)
Q.
11. All of the following have cleavage
planes except
a.
ionic
crystals
b.
covalent
crystals
c.
molecular
crystals
d.
metallic
crystals
(d)
Q.
12. Coordination number of Na+
in NaCI is
a.
1
b.
4
c.
2
d.
6
(d)
Q.
13. For a crystal system a b c and the example for this crystal system is
a.
CuSO4.
5H2O
b.
Na2B4O7.
10H2O
c.
ZnSO4.
7H2O
d.
BaSO4. 4H2O
(a)
Q. 14. A
student said I will preserve my father dead body in a time capsule for 1000
years. Islamian genius told him that the atmosphere of the capsule must contain
a.
O2
b.
SO2
c.
CO2
d.
Ar
(d)
Q.
15. All of the following have crystals
except
a.
diamond
b.
NaCI
c.
KBr
d.
CdS
(d)
Q.
16. Kerosene is liquid at room
temperature due to
a.
hydrogen
bonding
b.
organic
nature
c.
dipole-dipole
forces
d.
molecular
size
(d)
Q.
17. All of the following are network
solids except
a.
SiO2
b.
Graphite
c.
S8
d.
Diamond
(c)
Q. 18. Honey
contain glucose and fructose along with some other ingredients, it has greater
viscosity due to
a.
hydrogen
bonding
b.
irregular
shape of the molecules
c.
irregular
shape of the molecules and strong intermolecular forces
d.
greater
molecular size (c)
Q. 19. Boiling
point of phosphine (PH3) is -87.8 oC while that of silane
(SiH4) is
-111 oC. Phosphine has greater
boiling point because
a.
dipole
moment of PH3 is greater than that of SiH4
b.
PH3
has greater molecular size
c.
Molecular
weight of SiH4 is less than that of PH3
d.
Actually
the boiling of SiH4 is greater than that of PH3
(a)
Q. 20. Rate
of evaporation of petrol is greater than that of water at room temperature
because
a.
petrol
molecules do not have any hydrogen bond
b.
petrol
is an organic compound
c.
water
molecules have small size
d.
petrol
molecules have greater size
(a)
Q.
21. Substance having highest boiling point
among the following is
a.
HF
b.
HCI
c.
Br2
d.
HBr
(c)
Q.
22. Boiling points of different
substances are given below
CH4 = - 161 oC
C2H6 = -89 oC
CI2 = -34.6 oC
F2 = -188 oC
The data shows that vapour pressure of
a.
CI2
> C2H6 > CH4 > F2
b.
CI2
> F2 > CH4 > C2H6
c.
C2H6
> CH4 > F2 > CI2
d.
F2
> CH4 > C2H6 > CI2
(d)
Q.
23. Which of the following statements is
correct for the statement
“Vapour pressure of water at 0 oC
is 5 mmHg”
a.
boiling
point of water will be 0 oC at 5 mmHg
b.
boiling
point of water will be 0 oC
c.
if
external pressure is 5 mmHg then water will boil at 0 oC
d.
boiling
point of water is 100 oC at 760 mmHg pressure
(c)
Q.
24. What is the typical range of the
hydrogen bond
a.
5
– 25 kJ per mole of bonds
b.
5
– 25 kJ per molecule
c.
500
kJ per mole of bonds
d.
1
– 2 kJ per mole of bonds
(a)
Q.
25. Hydrogen bond is unimportant in
a.
DNA
structure
b.
The
liquid properties of water
c.
Liquid
HF
d.
Liquid
CH4
(d)
Q.
26. All of the following acids have
hydrogen bond in liquid state except
a.
sulfuric
acid
b.
nitric
acid
c.
hydrofluoric
acid
d.
hydrochloric
acid
(d)
Q.
27. Which of the following statements is
incorrect?
a.
dispersion
force is the weakest type of intermolecular interactions
b.
the
strong intermolecular attractions in H2O result from hydrogen
bonding
c.
boiling
point of H2S is less than H2O
d.
boiling
point of non-polar substances tends to decrease with increasing molecular
weight
(d)
Q. 28. A
white substance melts with some decomposition at 730 oC. As a solid,
it is non conductor of electricity but it dissolves in water to from a conducting
solution. The white substance is
a.
a
covalent network solid
b.
an
ionic solid
c.
a
molecular solid
d.
a
metallic solid
(b)
Q. 29. Keeping
in mind different factors which affect the boiling point of a substance,
element having highest boiling among the following is
a.
He
b.
F2
c.
Ne
d.
Br2
(d)
Q.
30. The increasing vapor pressure caused
by heating a liquid is due to
a.
increase
intermolecular interactions
b.
increasing
potential energy of molecules
c.
increasing
kinetic energy of molecules
d.
decreasing
surface tension
(c)
Q.
31. Covalent network crystals have
a.
higher
melting point then molecular crystals
b.
lower
melting point then molecular crystals
c.
discrete
molecules linked by Van der waals forces
d.
hydrogen
bonding
(a)
Q. 32. Keeping
in mind different factors which affect the boiling point of a liquid, element
having lowest boiling point among the following is
a.
F2
b.
CI2
c.
Br2
d.
I2
(a)
Q. 33. A
chemist was able to measure the value of lattice energy of KCI to be 690
kJ/mol. From this experiment he concluded that
a.
lattice
energy of KBr is 630 kJ/mol and that of KI is 665 kJ/mol
b.
lattice
energy of KBr is 665 kJ/mol and that of KI is 630 kJ/mol
c.
lattice
energy of KBr is 765 kJ/mol and that of KI is 730 kJ/mol
d.
lattice
energy of KBr is 730 kJ/mol and that of KI is 765 kJ/mol
(b)
CHAPTER 4
ATOMIC STRUCTURE
Q.1. Color of the glow produced in the discharge
tube
a.
depends
on the pressure in the discharge tube
b.
depends
on the metal used as cathode
c.
depends
on the gas used in the discharge tube
d.
does
not depend on the nature of the gas used in the discharge tube
(c)
Q. 2. Dr.
Khan told his students that if charge on electrons in a chamber is 3.50 x 10 11
coulomb than mass of electrons must be
a.
9.1
x 10-31 kg
b.
8
kg
c.
4
kg
d.
2
kg
(d)
Q.
3. e/m ratio of the canal rays is less
than that of cathode rays. The reason is
a.
greater
mass of canal ray particles
b.
greater
charge of the canal ray particles
c.
greater
mass and charge of the canal ray particles
d.
actually
e/m ratio of canal rays is greater than that of the cathode rays
(a)
Q.
4. Nuclear radiation is emitted by
those elements whose
a.
molecules
are stable
b.
molecules
are unstable
c.
nuclei
are stable
d.
nuclei
are unstable
(d)
Q.
5. -rays are good ionizers of gases
because they
a.
have
greater mass
b.
have
positive charge
c.
have
greater mass and positive charge
d.
are
helium nuclei
(c)
Q.
6. Consider the following reaction
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|
 |
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Be + He C + n
This reaction is
a.
a
chemical reaction
b.
a
nuclear reaction
c.
an
example of artificial radioactivity
d.
an
exothermic reaction
(c)
Q. 7. Roentgen
discovered X-rays and Mosley found that the frequency of the X-rays emitted
from anode increases with the
a.
increase
in the mass number of the metal used as anode
b.
decrease
in the mass number of the metal used as anode
c.
decrease
in the proton number of the metal used as anode
d.
increase
in the proton number of the metal used as anode
(d)
Q.
8. Radiation emitted by exited atoms is
a.
in
the form of continuous waves
b.
in
the form of quanta
c.
nuclear
radiations
d.
ultraviolet
radiation
(b)
Q. 9. If
the electron of hydrogen atom jumps of “M” shell then the radius of this
excited hydrogen atom will be
a.
8.464
Ao
b.
4.761
Ao
c.
2.116
Ao
d.
0.529
Ao
(b)
Q. 10. If
a particle of mass 0.1gram moves with a velocity of 10,000 m/s then the
wavelength of the wave associated with this particle is
a.
6.626
x 10-34 m
b.
2.145
x 10-39 m
c.
3.313
x 10-21 m
d.
1.325
x 10-18 m
(a)
Q.
11. Second ionization energy
a.
is
always less than first ionization energy
b.
is
always greater than first ionization energy
c.
is
equal to the first ionization energy
d.
may
be greater or less than the first ionization energy depending on the nature of
the element
(b)
Q. 12. “Ionization
energies of the elements of the 5th group are greater than those of
6th group”. It is because
a.
5th
group elements have less electronegativity
b.
6th
group of elements have greater shielding effect
c.
5th
group element have greater shielding
effect
d.
5th
group elements have half filled atomic orbitals
(d)
Q. 13. A
sodium lamp emits yellow light with a wavelength of 589 nm. What is the energy
of a single photon in this light?
a.
3.37
x 10-19 Joules
b.
1.12
x 10-25 Joules
c.
1.17
x 10-33 Joules
d.
5.09
x 1015 Joules
(a)
Q. 14. The
energy associated with the transition of an electron from the n=1 state to the
n=3 state of H atoms is:
a.
+1.74
x 10-17 Joules
b.
+1.94
x 10-18 Joules
c.
+1.94
x 10-18 Joules
d.
-1.74
x 10-17 Joules
(b)
Q.
15. All of the following are
electromagnetic radiations except
a.
red
light
b.
sound
waves
c.
x-rays
d.
photon
(b)
Q.
16. This shape of a 2s orbital resembles:
a.
a
hockey puck
b.
an
(American) football
c.
an
ellipse
d.
a
sphere
(d)
Q. 17. Which
orbital of the following has a principal quantum number of 3 and an angular
momentum quantum number of 27
a.
3s
b.
3d
c.
4f
d.
3f (b)
Q.
18. Which of the following has the
highest energy?
a.
gamma
rays
b.
X-rays
c.
Ultra-violet
radiation
d.
\radio
waves
(a)
Q.
19. All of the following elements are
correct for atomic orbitals except
a.
p-sub
energy level has 3 orbitals
b.
s-orbital
has spherical shape
c.
energy
of 4s is less than that of 4d
d.
All
d orbitals have 4 lobes
(d)
Q. 20. Various
values of the quantum numbers (n, /, m, ms) are listed below. Which
is a possible set of values for one of the d electrons in an iron atom in its
ground state?
a.
(1,
1, 0, ½)
b.
(4,
0, 1, ½)
c.
(4,
1, 0, -1/2)
d.
(3,
2, 1, -1/2)
(d)
Q.
21. How many orbitals are allowed for
principal quantum number (n) of 3?
a.
9
b.
8
c.
6
d.
4
(a)
Q.
22. Which of the following orbitals are
degenerate in a multielectron atom?
a.
3d
orbitals
b.
3s,
3p, 3d orbitals
c.
1s,
2s orbitals
d.
2d
orbitals
(a)
Q. 23. The
quantum number that specifies the way the orbital is oriented in space is:
a.
the
electron spin quantum number
b.
the
magnetic quantum number
c.
the
angular momentum quantum number
d.
the
principal quantum number
(b)
Q.
24. Which of the following has the
largest wavelength?
a.
visible
light
b.
x-rays
c.
infrared
light
d.
ultraviolet
radiation
(c)
Q. 25. Select
the arrangement of electromagnetic radiation which starts with the lowest
energy and increases to greatest energy.
a.
radio,
visible, infrared, visible, ultraviolet
b.
microwave,
infrared, visible, ultraviolet
c.
visible,
ultraviolet, infrared, gamma rays
d.
X-radiation,
visible, infrared, microwave
(b)
Q. 26. A
radio station broadcasts music at 99.1 MHz. The wavelength of these waves is
a.
1.88
x 10-2 m
b.
0.330
m
c.
3.03
m
d.
5.33
x 102 m
(c)
Q. 27. Green
light has a wavelength of 5200A. Calculate the energy of one photon of green
light.
a.
3.4
x 10-40 J
b.
3.4
x 10-30 J
c.
3.8
x 10-26 J
d.
3.8
x 10-19 J (d)
Q.
28. The size of an atomic orbital is
associated with
a.
principal
quantum number (n)
b.
angular
momentum quantum number (I)
c.
magnetic
quantum number (mI)
d.
spin
quantum number (ms)
(a)
Q. 29. Which
of the following is a correct set of quantum numbers for an electron in a 5f orbital?
a.
n
= 5, I = 3, mI = +1
b.
n
= 5, I = 2, mI = +3
c.
n
= 4, I = 3, mI = 0
d.
n
= 4, I = 2, mI = +1
(a)
Q. 30. In
the quantum mechanical treatment of the hydrogen atom, which one of the
following combinations of quantum numbers is not allowd?
a.
3,
1, -1
b.
3,
2, 2
c.
3,
2, -1
d.
3,
3, 2
(d)
Q. 31. “Each
electron in an atom must have its own unique set of quantum numbers” is a
statement of
a.
Aufbau
principle
b.
Pauli
exclusion principle
c.
Hund’s
rule
d.
Periodic
law
(b)
Q. 32. The
effective nuclear charge for an atom is less than the actual nuclear charge due
to
a.
Shielding
b.
Penetration
c.
Paramagnetism
d.
Electron-pair
repulsion
(a)
Q. 33. “Electrons
added to atomic orbitals of the same energy will remain unpaired with parallel
spins until the subshell is more than half-filled” is a statement of
a.
Aufbau
principle
b.
Pauli
exclusion principle
c.
Hund’s
rule
d.
Periodic
law
(c)
Q. 34. All
of the following statements are correct for atomic structure and quantum
numbers except
a.
In
a given atom, the maximum number of electrons having principal quantum number n
= 3, is 18
b.
The
number of orbitals in a given f
subshell is 7
c.
For
n=4, the largest possible value of I is 3
d.
For
n=4, the largest possible value of mI is 2
(d)
Q.
35. Select the correct electron
configuration for Cu (Z=29)
a.
[Ar]
4s23d9
b.
[Ar]4s13d10
c.
[Ar]4s24p63d3
d.
[Ar]4s14d9
(b)
Q. 36. Arrange
potassium, rubidium, calcium and barium in order of increasing atomic size.
a.
K
< Ca < Rb < Ba
b.
Ca
< K < Rb < Ba
c.
Ca
< K < Ba < Rb
d.
K
< Ca < Ba < Rb
(b)
Q. 37. Element having smallest atomic radius among the following is
a.
Li
b.
Ne
c.
Rb
d.
Sr
(b)
Q. 38. The
arrangement of sodium, oxygen, fluorine and strontium on the basis of
increasing first ionization energy is
a.
Na
< Sr < O < F
b.
Sr
< Na < O < F
c.
Sr
< Na < F < O
d.
Na
< Sr < F < O
(b)
Q. 39. Elements
with _____ first ionization energies and _______ electron affinities generally
form cations.
a.
low,
very negative
b.
high,
positive or slightly negative
c.
low,
positive or slightly negative
d.
high,
very negative
(c)
Q. 40. In
a Millikan oil-drop experiment, the charges on several different oil drops were
as follows: -5.92; -4.44; -2.96; -8.88. The units are arbitrary. What is the
likely value of the electronic charge in these arbitrary units?
a.
-1.11
b.
-1.48
c.
-2.22
d.
-2.96
(b)
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